What's the difference between .... ???

[Sadiaa]

Fard and Wajib?

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"I put my trust in Allah, my Lord and your Lord! There is not a moving creature, but He has a grasp of its forelock. Verily, my Lord is on the straight path. (The truth)"
(11:55-56)

[Ibrahim]

Fard

something which is obligatory on a Muslim. It is sometimes used in reference to the obligatory part of salat.

means religious duty


Wajib

means compulsory

[Sadiaa]

do you get 'gunha' for not doing something that is wajib? if so, then i don't really see any diff. b/w fard and wajib ?

[PakistaniAbroad]

Fard
something which is obligatory on a Muslim. It is sometimes used in reference to the obligatory part of salat.

means religious duty

Wajib

means compulsory

huh

isn't obligatory = compulsory ??

and by that token, isn't fard = wajib?

what's the source of this 'wajib' anyway?

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[Musalman]

Dear sister Asslamu Alikum,

While the majority of jurists regard fard and wajib as synonymous, the Hanafis draw a clear distinction between the two. Ishaq. Ibrahim al-Shashi in defining the two states, “Linguistically fard means to decree, whilst in the Shari`a, it denotes that which is delineated in such a manner that no increase or decrease is possible. The command of a fard is communicated by a definite (qat`i) text wherein there is no ambiguity, clear and specific. To act upon it and to believe in it is binding… wajib, technically means that which is established by a text of an ambiguous or
speculative (zanni) authority, such as an allegorically interpreted (mu’awal) verse.”
The majority of jurists and Hanafis agree that fard and wajib are both binding. Fard is
communicated by a clear definite text with no ambiguity or speculation and wajib by a speculative text. As a consequence the obligation emanating from a fard is of a greater degree than that from a wajib. The omission of a fard invalidates the act, such as the unanimous view of the jurists that the omission of the stay at `Arafa, which is a fard act, renders one’s hajj null and void.
Whilst the omission of sa`i (pacing) between al-Saffa and al-Marwa, which is communicated by a speculative authority will not invalidate the hajj. Another distinction is that one who refuses to believe in a fard such as salah or zakah is rendered an unbeliever. However, the denial of believing in an obligation established by a speculative authority will not make one an unbeliever.

Hope this will help, and only Allah (swt) knows best.

[FactFinder]

Originally posted by Sadiaa:
Fard and Wajib?

To the majority of Ulema, the words are synonomous and convey an imperative and binding demand on Muslims. Only the Hanafi school diffrentiates between them.

They are of the opinion that any definitive instruction from the Qur'an is fardh, while anything from the Sunnah is wajib.

Deliberate non-performance of both, if the command is established by definitive proof, makes a person a non-believer. But if the authority of the sunnah is not free of doubt, he becomes a transgressor.

As an example the support of wife, children and poor parents is wajib. If a persondoes not fulfill this obligation, he is a sinner, but not an infidel.


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Rabbeshrah lee sadree; wa yassirlee amree; yafqahoo qaulee.

[Ibrahim]

Ibrahim says: Salaams to all

I only gave the most commonly accepted meanings for the above terms and did not convey the differences in those meanings as understood by Muslims. Since that has puzzled some let me refer you to what has already conveyed on the net

http://www.islam.org/dialogue/Q412.HTM

Question: What is the difference between fardh and wajib?

Answer : The two terms fardh and wajib are very close in meaning. Nevertheless there is an important difference between them when they occur within the context of Islamic worship. In order to appreciate the difference, perhaps we should give them different terms in English. There, we should translate the term fardh as obligation and wajib as duty. Different schools of thought have different approaches to the distinction. For example, the Maliki and Shaf'ie schools of thought consider both terms synonymous in all matters of worship, with the exception of pilgrimage in which a fardh or an obligation, if omitted, renders the pilgrimage invalid. The best examples are attendance at Arafat on the ninth of Thul-Hajjah and the tawaf of Ifadah. A wajib or duty, is something the omission of which does not invalidate pilgrimage altogether, but requires compensation by sacrifice. As for prayers, fasting and zakah, fardh and wajib, or obligations and duty are synonymous, according to these two schools of thought. The other two schools, the Hanafi and the Hanbali assign different meanings to the two terms. Let us consider these differences with regard to prayer. The Hanafi school of thought lists 17 duties of prayer, considering the fact that the Prophet consistently did them in prayer as the reason for making them duties. If someone omits any of these during prayer, either inadvertently or through forgetfulness, all he needs to do is to offer two prostrations at the end of his prayer which are known as Sujood Assahu. If he deliberately omits any of these duties, he must repeat his prayer. If he does not, the prayer is valid, but he is considered to have committed an offense. According to the Hanbali school of thought, there are eight duties or wajib. If any of them is omitted deliberately and knowingly, the prayer is invalid. If it is omitted out of forgetfulness, it is compensated by two prostrations as we have explained. If any is omitted out of ignorance that it is a duty, the prayer is valid.

Hope this helps clarify the diffrence.

[FactFinder]

Originally posted by Musalman:
Whilst the omission of sa`i (pacing) between al-Saffa and al-Marwa, which is communicated by a speculative authority will not invalidate the hajj.

Jazak Allah, brother for a lucid description. If I had seen your post, I would not have ventured mine. But, apparently, we were both typing away ate the same time.

But, I am a bit sceptical about the part that I have quoted above.

According to the three schools of thought (excluding Hanafi) the performance of sa'i is an integral part of Umra and Hajj. The definitive ruling is from Ayah 2:158. It is mentioned that Az-Zuhari reported that 'Urwah asked A'ishah (radhi Allaho anha) about this ayah and interpreted that the performance of sai' is not obligatory as the ayah says "there is no sin in them". She replied "O my nephew! That is the worst interprtation you have put on this verse. ...." The reason for the "there is no sin in them" is that the Ansar used to worship an idol in that area and the Muslims were reluctant to perform the sai' as they felt that it may be linked to that worship. Hence the ayah.

The Hanafis use the same ayah to interpret non-obligatory nature.




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Rabbeshrah lee sadree; wa yassirlee amree; yafqahoo qaulee.

[Sadiaa]

Jazakallah khair brothers!! tht helped a lot

Another q: is your prayer invalidated if you only pray fard and not sunnah/nifl ??? I've heard about some sunnah moqada or non-moqada stuff.... saying tht if you dont pray moqada sunnah/nifl your prayer does not count ????

[PakistaniAbroad]

The reason for the "there is no sin in them" is that the Ansar used to worship an idol in that area and the Muslims were reluctant to perform the sai' as they felt that it may be linked to that worship. Hence the ayah.

pls. help me understand this.

Ansars were the Medinites? right? how come they had an idol in Mecca?

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[Ibrahim]

Originally posted by PakistaniAbroad:
pls. help me understand this. Ansars were the Medinites? right? how come they had an idol in Mecca?

Ibrahim says: salaams to all

PA, that could be a simple typo and it should be the “pagan arabs” who lived in Makkah prior to Islam being reestablished in Makkah, who placed idols there , just like it was placed in the Kaa’bah itself by the pagan arabs

Here, according to tradition, the lady Hajar, mother of the infant Ismail, prayed for water in the parched desert, and in her eager quest round these hills, she found her prayer answered and saw the Zam-zam spring. Unfortunately the Pagan Arabs had placed a male and a female idol here, and their gross and superstitious rites caused offence to the early Muslims. They felt some hesitation in going round these places during the Pilgrimage although it should have not been the case since the kaa’bah itself had been violated by them and cleansed out later on.

This story ( the root for that tradition) is revealed in the Bible in its distorted form thus:

Genesis 21:

14. Early the next morning Abraham took some food and a skin of water and gave them to Hagar. He set them on her shoulders and then sent her off with the boy. She went on her way and wandered in the desert of Beersheba.

15. When the water in the skin was gone, she put the boy under one of the bushes.

16. Then she went off and sat down nearby, about a bowshot away, for she thought, "I cannot watch the boy die." And as she sat there nearby, she began to sob.

17. God heard the boy crying, and the angel of God called to Hagar from heaven and said to her, "What is the matter, Hagar? Do not be afraid; God has heard the boy crying as he lies there.

18. Lift the boy up and take him by the hand, for I will make him into a great nation."

19. Then God opened her eyes and she saw a well of water. So she went and filled the skin with water and gave the boy a drink.

[FactFinder]

Originally posted by PakistaniAbroad:
pls. help me understand this.

Ansars were the Medinites? right? how come they had an idol in Mecca?

The hadeeth is correct. I have checked in the hard copy of Sahih Bukhari (Vol. 6, Ch. 21) and had copy-pasted from a site. There may have been some Ansar in Makkah in pre-Islam period. Wallaho Aalam.

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Rabbeshrah lee sadree; wa yassirlee amree; yafqahoo qaulee.

[This message has been edited by FactFinder (edited December 20, 2001).]

[PakistaniAbroad]

PA, that could be a simple typo and it should be the “pagan arabs” who lived in Makkah prior to Islam being reestablished in Makkah, who placed idols there , just like it was placed in the Kaa’bah itself by the pagan arabs

The hadeeth is correct. I have checked in the hard copy of Sahih Bukhari (Vol. 6, Ch. 21) and had copy-pasted from a site. There may have been some Ansar in Makkah in pre-Islam period. Wallaho Aalam.

I'll let the two of you sort this one out

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[This message has been edited by PakistaniAbroad (edited December 20, 2001).]

[FactFinder]

Originally posted by PakistaniAbroad:
I'll let the two of you sort this one out

I don't think there is a problem or need. What we have written is sufficient for both of us, if you care to understand the tone and words used. I respect brother Ibrahim's knowledge, and he hasn't said anything other than it may be a typo. I am sure he will verify and confirm whether what I have is correct or a typo.



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Rabbeshrah lee sadree; wa yassirlee amree; yafqahoo qaulee.

[Changez_like]

Sis Sadiaa,

Fard is what Allah SWT made compulsory upon us.
Wajib is a sunnah that Prophet PBUH used to do routinely or instructed us to do it.

In other words, Fard is made compulsory by Allah SWT and we shall be asked of "compulsory" or "fard" only. If we lack anything in the balance than 'wajib', 'sunnah' or 'nawafil' will be added to see if scale is balanced.

IMHO, there is no gunaah in not performing sunnah, nawaafil. Sunnah, nawafil are there for us to add more to our credit.

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May Allah SWT guide us all towards right and help us follow the right