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    Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

    Assalamo alaykum wr wb,

    Recently I have been submitting questions to www.Islamqa.com and www.Islamtoday.net for all the questions that I couldn't find clear answers for.

    Many of them are very common questions, so I have decided to share some of them that I think could be of use to others.

    I highly encourage everyone to submit/ask questions about matters they cannot find clear answers for and to share them with the rest of us. I feel this will help us all learn and utilize the information to the best of our ability, insha'Allah.

    I've definitely learned a lot by asking questions and many of my misconceptions and doubts have been cleared up, alhamdulillah.

    Islamic (Halaal) Loans in the West

    Question: There is an institution in Canada that says that it gives Shariah Compliant, riba-free home loans. I have my doubts and I don't quite understand what it is that they are doing. I would really appreciate it if you can look into UM Financial Institution and let me and other Muslims know about who and what they are, and whether or not if the loans they are giving are based on an Islamic method, and that the loans are truly riba-free. Their website address is: http://www.umfinancial.com/ Jazakallahu khairan

    Answer: Dear questioner:



    Al-Salâm `Alaykum wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh.



    We have received a similar question to yours and have the following answer:



    Question:



    There are a number of non-interest house buying programs that are available in America. The idea works like this: you buy the house by renting and purchasing it at the same time. The rent goes to the Muslim company that acquired the house and the purchasing portion goes toward the purchase of the house, until the agreed upon amount is satisfied for the cost of the house. Some of my friends say this is unlawful because you must be either buying or renting, but not both.



    Guidance Finance is running this program in America with such scholars as, Dr Abdus Sattar Abu Ghuddah, Shaikh Nizam Yacuby, Dr Mohammed A Elgari, of S.A. Please give me your view.



    Answer:

    Answered by Sheikh Sâmî al-Suwaylim, Islamic legal consultant for al-Rajhî Investment and Finance Company.

    If the scholars that you have mentioned have reviewed the documentation and contracts and approve of these business practices, then it is permissible for you to rely upon their opinion. These scholars are recognized for their knowledge and proficiency. It is not proper for anyone to give a detailed ruling on a company’s practices without first carefully reviewing all the relevant documentations and particular contracts that apply to those practices.
    I still have my doubts about UM Financial and I'm trying to have it checked through at least another scholar, insha'Allah.

    #2
    Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

    Working in places that serve pork


    Question:


    ... I'd like to know would it be permissible to work there and to touch and sell pork while having gloves on the hands? Or is it totally unlawful to work at a restaurant/place that sells pork? WasSalaam

    Answer:


    Dear sister:


    Al-Salâm `Alaykum wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh.


    It is unlawful to sell unlawful goods. May Allah bless you to find employment where you will not have to sell anything unlawful.



    Fatwâ Department Research Committee of IslamToday chaired by Sheikh `Abd al-Wahhâb al-Turayrî
    I have removed part of the question for a number of reasons. I had Subway in mind when I asked this question.

    Comment


      #3
      Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

      Eating at places that are not owned by the Muslims

      Question:


      I've read it countless times that the food of the People of the Book (Jews and Christians) is permissible for Muslims. Therefore, I've been eating out at KFC, McDonalds and other such places. I would just like to double check and ensure that such food is okay to consume in countries like America and Canada. Jazakallahu khairan

      Answer:


      The Answer:



      By Sheikh `Abd al-Wahhab al-Turayrî

      Former Professor at Imam University



      Animals slaughtered by Christians and Jews are lawful for Muslims, and this is not contingent to their firmness on their religion, because the people of scripture were existing at our Prophet’s (peace be upon him) time and they had already changed and deviated from their religion.



      Therefore, the meat they sell in their supermarkets and restaurants is lawful, provided they slaughter their meat properly, and do not use alternative methods like electrocution or suffocation to kill the animal.

      Comment


        #4
        Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

        Unknown chemicals found in food products

        Question:


        I have a question in many food products there are chemicals such as riboflavin and beta carotene-these products have animal ingredients but it does not mention what kind-is ir still ok to eat those?




        Answer:

        Dear questioner:



        Al-Salâm `Alaykum wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh.



        Riboflavin (E101) is also known as vitamin B2. In processed foods it is very likely to have been produced synthetically from bacteria using genetically modified Bacillus subtilis. Riboflavin is yellow or orange-yellow in colour and in addition to being used as a food colouring it is also used to fortify some foods. It can be found in such foods as baby foods, breakfast cereals, sauces, processed cheese, fruit drinks and vitamin-enriched milk products as well as being widely used in vitamin supplements.



        Beta-carotine, also known as vitamin A, is generally derived from vegetable and fruit sources. Beta-carotene as a plant based color is generally available as either a 100% Beta-carotene in powdered form to be mixed only with dried powdered ingredients, with vegetable oil to be used in bakery products, or with fish gelatin. Animal gelatin might be used. However, the associated oil or gelatin is often not declared on product labels since it is considered merely a processing aid.



        Fatwâ Department Research Committee of IslamToday chaired by Sheikh `Abd al-Wahhâb al-Turayrî



        *****************************



        Please read the following general fatwâs about food attitives from our archives to put these matters into perspective:



        Question: How should Muslims deal with all those e-codes on food labels? Should we avoid all such foods?



        Answered by: Sheikh `Abd al-Rahmân b. Ahmad b. Fâyi` al-Jar`î

        The issue requires first finding out exactly what each e-code stands for. This can be solicited from the experts in the appropriate fields.

        Each code stands for a particular chemical. If it is established that a certain chemical is always of porcine origin, then it will be unlawful to eat of products containing that e-code in its ingredients.

        However, if the e-code stands for a certain chemical of uncertain origin, then a Muslim may consume a product containing that e-code in its ingredients. The legal principle being employed here is that any issue wherein there is doubt is presumed to be nonexistent.

        And Allah knows best.

        *********************************

        Question: What is the ruling on all those food additives?



        Answered by: Sheikh Ahmad b. Muhammad al-Khudayrî

        All foods and drinks are permissible except those that are expressly forbidden by the Qur’ân and Sunnah, like pork and intoxicating drink.

        Sometimes, permissible substances get mixed together with impermissible ones. There are two possible situations when this happens:

        1. The forbidden substance is so minute in comparison to the permissible substance that it is effectively nonexistent. It leaves no color, scent, or taste. In this case it is permissible to consume the permissible substance. The principle in Islamic law is that the impermissible substance has been completely obliterated by the permissible one. It does not matter whether either or both of the substances are solid or liquid.
        2. The forbidden substance is not totally submerged into the permissible one. Because of its quantity or strength. When this happens, the food or drink so affected is forbidden.

        As far as the specific questions that you have, you can get the answer by either reading the label or contacting the company in question. Then you can apply what we have outlined above.
        I submitted this question on someone else's behalf. It didn't particularly interest me, but it could be of use to many others I guess.

        Comment


          #5
          Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

          Making duaa during salah in another language

          Question:


          Assalamo alaykum warahmatullah wabarakatuh, I've read that one is most closest to Allah (SWT) when in sujood. Hence, it's the best time to make duaa/supplication. I would like to know if it is okay to make duaa in languages other than Arabic. That is because I'm not an Arabic speaking Muslim and therefore, I can't make personal duaas while in sujood other than in my own language. Also, is it alright for me to offer sujood outside of prayer and make duaa during that sujood? Jazakallahu khairan.



          Dear questioner:



          Al-Salâm `Alaykum wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh.



          Please read the following fatwâs from our archives detailing supplication in prayer:



          The Answer: by Sheikh Sâmî al-Mâjid

          Professor at the College of Islamic Law, Riyadh



          Wa `alaykum al-Salâm wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh



          You may offer your personal supplications in prayer in a language other than Arabic. It does not matter whether the prayer is obligatory or voluntary. There is a fatwâ in this regard by the Permanent Fatwâ Committee, No.: 6348, Volume 7 page 113.



          This is the answer of the Permanent Committee in Saudi Arabia for Research and Fatwâ:



          After a person completes reading the tashahhud, it is preferable to seek refuge with Allah from four things; the punishment of Hell, the punishment in the grave, trials in life and death, and the evil of the Dajjâl. [Related by Abű Dâwűd]. Then he can supplicate however he wishes. The Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “You may choose to supplicate with whatever you prefer.” [Related by al-Nisâ’î]



          You may supplicate in prayer in a different language other than the Arabic. It does not matter whether the prayer is obligatory or voluntary.



          The Answer: by Sheikh al-Sharîf Hamzah al-Fa`ar, professor at Umm al- Qurâ University



          Our Prophet (Pease be upon him) encouraged us to increase our supplications (du`â) during prostration, because they are more likely to be accepted.



          He said: “While prostrating increase your supplications, because it is more likely that they will be answered.”. This applies to all prayers, obligatory and voluntary. It also applies to all prostrations within a prayer, not only the last one.



          If you cannot make your supplications in Arabic, you may do it in your own language.



          You do not have to use the same supplications that are mentioned in the Qur’ân or Sunnah, even though they are better. You may supplicate with any words that are easy for you, as long as you do not say anything in violation of Islamic Law.



          And success is with Allah.



          Answered by: Sheikh `Abd al-Rahmân al-`Ajlân



          Prostrating outside of prayer must never be performed except in two cases; sujűd al-tilâwah (prostration upon reading certain verses of Qur’ân) and sujűd al-shukr (prostration of thanks).
          Assalamo alaykum, Jazakumullahu khairan for answering my question regarding making duaa while in sujood. However, I just want to get clarification, as I feel I did not get my question across properly. After making niyaah for salah, I stand read Surah Fatiha and another Surah from the Quran, then I do rukooh, then I go in sujood. While in that sujood, can I make duaa in my language as I'm not well-versed in Arabic? This is what I mainly want to know. Ie. validity of making duaa while in sujood during the salah in a language other than Arabic. Jazakumullahu khairan. WasSalaam



          Dear questioner:



          Al-Salâm `Alaykum wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh.



          You may offer your personal supplications during prostration in a language other than Arabic.



          Please read the following fatwâs from our archives detailing supplication in prayer:



          The Answer: by Sheikh Sâmî al-Mâjid

          Professor at the College of Islamic Law, Riyadh



          Wa `alaykum al-Salâm wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh



          You may offer your personal supplications in prayer in a language other than Arabic. It does not matter whether the prayer is obligatory or voluntary. There is a fatwâ in this regard by the Permanent Fatwâ Committee, No.: 6348, Volume 7 page 113.



          This is the answer of the Permanent Committee in Saudi Arabia for Research and Fatwâ:



          After a person completes reading the tashahhud, it is preferable to seek refuge with Allah from four things; the punishment of Hell, the punishment in the grave, trials in life and death, and the evil of the Dajjâl. [Related by Abű Dâwűd]. Then he can supplicate however he wishes. The Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “You may choose to supplicate with whatever you prefer.” [Related by al-Nisâ’î]



          You may supplicate in prayer in a different language other than the Arabic. It does not matter whether the prayer is obligatory or voluntary.



          The Answer: by Sheikh al-Sharîf Hamzah al-Fa`ar, professor at Umm al- Qurâ University



          Our Prophet (Pease be upon him) encouraged us to increase our supplications (du`â) during prostration, because they are more likely to be accepted.



          He said: “While prostrating increase your supplications, because it is more likely that they will be answered.”. This applies to all prayers, obligatory and voluntary. It also applies to all prostrations within a prayer, not only the last one.



          If you cannot make your supplications in Arabic, you may do it in your own language.



          You do not have to use the same supplications that are mentioned in the Qur’ân or Sunnah, even though they are better. You may supplicate with any words that are easy for you, as long as you do not say anything in violation of Islamic Law.



          And success is with Allah.

          Comment


            #6
            Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

            Sacrificing an animal for sadaqah to avoid problems (Jaan ka sadaqah).

            Question:


            Assalamo alaykum warahmatullahi wabarakatuh, Recently, my mom was in a very bad car accident. However, Allah (SWT) The All-Mighty saved her lif, alhamdulillah. All relatives and friends are suggesting that we offer sacrifice (sadaqah) of an animal, so to ward off the evil or something like that. Because my mom has had a few health problems very recently. Can you please advise me about what the ruling is for sacrificing an animal as a sadaqah for all the major mishap that has happened and/or to ward off the evil that has come our way. Because people say it's a life for a life. That is, a human being was saved and to ward off further evil and mishap, sacrifice a goat or something so that it would compensate for it somehow. Please advise. I look forward to hearing from you soon, insha'Allah. WasSalaam



            Dear questioner:



            Al-Salâm `Alaykum wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh.



            It is permissible to sacrifice an animal and give of its meat in charity at any time as a means of worship, a way of drawing nearer to Allah. The same can be said for voluntary prayer and fasting and giving in monetary charity. All of these acts of worship can be done as a means of expressing thanks to Allah for His providence or for His sparing us from a calamity.



            Also, all of our good deeds can be engaged in hopes that Allah will spare us from misfortune and calamity.



            However, sacrificing an animal is not specifically prescribed when a person has faced danger or had a near-death experience. It is not a Sunnah to sacrifice an animal on such an occasion and it is unlawful for someone to misconstrue it to be a Sunnah.



            Graver still is the belief that if one does not sacrifice an animal on such an occasion that misfortune will befall that person. Allah is our Lord and He decrees what He will. If He spares us from some calamity, we should thank Him and we should certainly know that it was Allah and only Allah who has saved us. However, we cannot believe that we will face wrath if we do not perform some specific act of sacrifice thereafter. This idea is alien to Islamic teachings.



            Also, the idea that there has to be a life for a life in this matter is false. Allah is the one who gives life and causes to die. There is nothing to compensate for in the first place. Allah does not need our blood sacrifice.



            In conclusion, we praise Allah that He spared your mother from a car accident. We should thank Him and praise Him for this. We should take advantage of the remainder of our lives to please Him and worship Him, to engage in righteous deeds of all kinds and shun evil.



            And Allah is the Giver of all success.



            Fatwâ Department Research Committee of IslamToday chaired by Sheikh `Abd al-Wahhâb al-Turayrî

            Comment


              #7
              Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

              Adam (AS) cried so much for his repantance at the time he was kicked out of heaven that his tears or words were written on the skies

              Question:


              Adam (AS) cried so much for his repantance at the time he was kicked out of heaven that his tears or words were written on the skies. Again, I know it to be false, but I would like some sort of explanation ..., insha'Allah.

              Dear questioner:



              Al-Salâm `alaykum wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh.



              This resembles such statements as those that are often quoted from the Jewish and Christian traditions. You may find it in books of Qur’ân commentary as commentary on Allah’s saying “Then learnt Adam from his Lord certain words and his lord turned towards him” and historical works like al-Bidâyah wa al-Nihâyah (the repentance of Adam).



              Such stories are plentiful, not authentic as hadîth, not verifiable as history, and not very important.



              There is authentic hadîth where the Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “Convey from me even one single verse, and you may relate from the Children of Israel without harm. Anyone who deliberately tells a lie regarding me will take his seat in the Fire.” [Sahîh al-Bukhârî (3461)]



              However, in another hadîth, the Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “Whatever the People of the Book tell you, neither believe them nor deny what they say, but rather say: ‘I believe in Allah and His Messengers.’ For if it is something false, you will not be believing it, and if it is something true, you will not be denying it.” [Sunan Abî Dâwűd (3644) and Musnad Ahmad (16597)]



              Consequently, scholars have different opinions regarding the meaning of the first hadîth. Generally, they say that it is permissible to listen to their stories, but not to believe them.



              Ibn Hajar al-`Asqalânî writes, commenting on the aforementioned hadîth in Sahîh al-Bukhârî:



              This means that there is no restriction upon you in relating what they say. This is because he had previously rebuked taking from them and looking in their books, then he relaxed the restriction. It is as if the prohibition took place before the Islamic rulings and religious principles had been firmly established, to prevent confusion. Then, when the negative consequences went away, it became permitted to do so, because of the lessons to be learned hearing the stories that took place back in their time. [Fath al-Bârî (6/498)]



              The Prophet (peace be upon him) permitted his Companions to relating from the Jewish and Christian traditions, but he forbade them from believing or disbelieving those traditions on their own merits.



              Therefore, if these stories agree with the Qur’ân and Sunnah, we know that they are true. However, in this case they provide us with no new information. When they contradict the Qur’ân and Sunnah, we know that they are false. Otherwise, we take no stance as to the veracity of the information that they provide.



              And Allah knows best.



              Fatwâ Department Research Committee of IslamToday chaired by Sheikh `Abd al-Wahhâb al-Turayrî

              Comment


                #8
                Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

                The adulterer marries not but an adulteress...

                Question:


                Assalamo alaykum warahmatullahi wabarakatuh, I hope you recieve this email in the best of health and eeman, insha'Allah. I have a question about the following verse: "The adulterer marries not but an adulteress or a Mushrikah and the adulteress none marries her except an adulterer or a Muskrik (and that means that the man who agrees to marry (have a sexual relation with) a Mushrikah (female polytheist, pagan or idolatress) or a prostitute, then surely he is either an adulterer, or a Mushrik (polytheist, pagan or idolater, etc.) And the woman who agrees to marry (have a sexual relation with) a Mushrik (polytheist, pagan or idolater) or an adulterer, then she is either a prostitute or a Mushrikah (female polytheist, pagan, or idolatress, etc.)). Such a thing is forbidden to the believers (of Islamic Monotheism)." (Surah Nur, Verse 3) I was discussing this with a sister when she asked if there is a ruling which restricts virgin from marrying a non-virgin (perhaps a zani/zania) and a non-virgn (zani/zania) to marrying a virgin. I know a virgin can marry a non-virgin (previously married) and vice versa, but I would really appreciate it if you can clarify if it's ok for a zani/zania to marry a virgin and vice versa. Jazakallahu khairan.


                Answered by:

                Sheikh Samî al-Mâjid

                Lecturer at Islamic Law College, Riyadh



                What matters is the Muslim’s present situation, not his or her past. If he or she is now chaste and has repented for the misdeed, then there is nothing to prevent that person from marrying another chaste Muslim.



                However, it is unlawful for a Muslim to marry someone who is in the habit of fornicating or is simply unrepentant for what he or she has done and sees nothing wrong with it.



                Allah says: “The adulterer cannot marry anyone but an adulteress or an idolatress, and the adulteress cannot marry anyone but an adulterer or an idolater. To the believers, such a thing is forbidden.” and says: “Women impure are for men impure, and men impure for women impure and women of purity are for men of purity, and men of purity are for women of purity” [from Sűrah al-Nűr]



                True repentance takes either party out of the ruling of this verse. Therefore, someone who used to commit fornication and has repented can marry any virtuous Muslim.

                Comment


                  #9
                  Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

                  Ruling Regarding Animal Rennet in Cheese



                  Question:


                  Assalam o alaikum, Kindly refer to the research paper by Sheikh Salman al-Awdah, "Ruling Regarding Animal Rennet in Cheese " available at the link http://www.islamtoday.net/english/sh...sub_cat_id=535 I have some questions regarding Sheikh Salman's research: The Sheikh writes: 'I believe their cheese is lawful, since the milk of the illegally slaughtered animals is lawful and because the Companions ate from theircheese after the battle of Iraq." However, we see that: 1. Milk comes BEFORE slaughtering and NOT AFTER it. It is not the same something from INSIDE the animal. 2. How does the extraction of rennet does not fall under the ruling issued by the Prophet peace be upon him that the meat cut off from a live animal is haram. Please elaborate. Jazakallah.


                  Answer:


                  Dear questioner:



                  Al-Salâm `Alaykum wa Rahmah Allah wa Barakâtuh.



                  The statement “the milk of the illegally slaughtered animals is lawful” clearly refers to the ruling n milk extracted after slaughter. Milk taken from an animal that is alive cannot be called “the milk of an illegally slaughtered animal”.



                  The rennet takes a ruling like milk, which is pure when extracted from a live animal or from a dead, unslaughtered animal. It does not take the ruling of the flesh of the animal, which is impure when cut off a live animal or a dead, unslaughtered animal. That the rennet is in contact with the flesh of the animal does not make it impure. Sheikh Slaman summarizes his reasons for saying this as follows:



                  As for the argument that a liquid will become impure when it touches an impure place, we reply that it is known from Sunnah that the liquid is pure. We also say that even if it touches an impure place that will not matter. Allah says: "From what is within their bodies between excretions and blood we produce for you a drink, milk, pure and agreeable to those who drink it." This is why it is permissible to carry a child while praying despite of what is inside his body. And Allah knows best.



                  Fatwâ Department Research Committee of IslamToday chaired by Sheikh `Abd al-Wahhâb al-Turayrî
                  This question was originally submitted by someone else on my request. I thought I'd share it anyway, as it could be of use, insha'Allah.

                  Comment


                    #10
                    Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

                    Are women included in the verse in which Allaah says: “And give not unto the foolish your property”?

                    uestion :

                    "And give not unto the foolish your property which Allah has made a means of support for you, but feed and clothe them therewith, and speak to them words of kindness and justice." (Surah Nisa, Verse 5) According to Ibn Kathir's tafsir, this verse about not giving money to the "foolish" refers to women and children. I feel that it is saying husbands should not give money to their wives to spend or should not give their income to their wives to spend because they are foolish and unwise. Is this true or have I taken the meaning out of context? Can you please explain the meaning of this verse to me, as it's worrying me a lot.


                    Answer :

                    Praise be to Allaah.

                    Some of the commentators say that the word sufaha’ (translated here as “foolish”) refers to women, but this is not correct. Rather what is meant by safeeh (sing. of sufaha’) is one who is not able to dispose of money in a proper way, whether male or female. That includes the insane, young children and adult men or women who not able to dispose of money in a proper way, rather they waste it and spend it on things that do not benefit them.

                    Some of the mufassireen refuted the view that this refers to women, and regarded it is far-fetched both in linguistic and shar’i terms.

                    With regard to the linguistic aspect, they say that (foolish) women are not described as sufaha’, rather the terms used are safaa’ih or safeehaat.

                    With regard to the shar’i aspect, the mutawaatir texts of the Qur’aan and Sunnah clearly show that women may possess wealth and deal with it, buying, selling and renting, whilst husbands are still obliged to give their wives maintenance in order to look after the house. When Abu Sufyaan withheld maintenance from his wife and she complained to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) told her: “Take what is sufficient for you and your child on a reasonable basis.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 2097; Muslim, 1714.

                    Al-Qurtubi said:

                    The scholars differed concerning who these suhafa’ (the foolish) are. It was narrated that Sa’eed ibn Jubayr said: They are the orphans; do not give them your wealth. Al-Nahhaas said: This is one of the best suggestions concerning this verse. Ismaa’eel ibn Abi Khaalid narrated that Abu Maalik said: They are young children; do not give them your wealth lest they waste it and you are left with nothing. Sufyaan narrated from Humayd al-A’raj that Mujaahid said: They are women. Al-Nahhaas and others said: This view is not valid, rather the Arabs describe (foolish) women as safaa’ih or safeehaat… Abu Moosa al-Ash’ari (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: Sufaha’ here refers to everyone who deserves to be prevented from disposing of his own affairs.

                    Tafseer al-Qurtubi, 5/28

                    Ibn Jareer al-Tabari (may Allaah have mercy on him) narrated a number of comments made by the mufassireen (commentators) concerning this verse, including the view that what is meant is women, then he said:

                    The correct view concerning the meaning of this verse in our opinion is that the meaning of this phrase, “And give not unto the foolish your property”, is general, and Allaah did not single out any one kind of foolish person. So it is not permissible for anyone to give a foolish person his wealth, whether he is a young boy or an old man, male or female. The foolish person to whom it is not permissible for his guardian to give him his wealth is the one who deserves to be prevented from disposing of his own affairs because his behaviour of wasting his wealth and not handling it properly.

                    As for the view of those who say that sufaha’ (the foolish) refers specifically to women, he is interpreting the language inappropriately. End quote.

                    Tafseer al-Tabari, 3/249

                    Shaykh ‘Abd al-Rahmaan al-Sa’di (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:

                    Sufaha’ is the plural of safeeh, and refers to one who does not deal with money properly, either because he is of unsound mind, like one who is insane or feeble-minded, etc, or because he is immature, like a young child. Allaah has forbidden guardians to give these people their wealth lest they spoil it or waste it, because Allaah has made this wealth a means of looking after their spiritual and worldly interests, and these people cannot take good care of it. End quote.

                    Tafseer al-Sa’di, p. 130, 131

                    Thus it is clear that there is nothing wrong with a man giving money to his wife to spend on the house, if she is mature and wise and is able to handle the money properly.

                    And Allaah knows best.


                    Islam Q&A (www.islam-qa.com)

                    http://63.175.194.25/index.php?searc...et=0&msubmit=1

                    Comment


                      #11
                      Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

                      Is there a du’aa’ which a menstruating woman can recite that brings a reward equivalent to Hajj or ‘Umrah?

                      Question :

                      I was wondering if you know that dua'a which women are supposed to read when they're not praying (ie. menstruating) during Ramadan and other times as wel. I believe you're supposed to read it 70 times at the time of each salah and the rewards include something like hajj and umra for every vein of the body. If you could please please provide me with that dua'a as well as the translation, benefits, and hadith or whatever authenticity, i would really really appreciate it. I've been looking and I know I have it but somewhere, but I can't seem to find it.


                      Answer :

                      Praise be to Allaah.

                      Firstly:

                      We do not know of any du’aa’ in the saheeh Sunnah that is like the one mentioned by our sister.

                      It is not permissible for anyone to attribute to the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) things that he did not say. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever tells lies about me deliberately, let him take his place in Hell.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 1291; Muslim, 933.

                      Not every hadeeth that a person hears or reads in a book is saheeh, rather he must verify whether the hadeeth was indeed narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), and it should be taken from trustworthy scholars who have sound knowledge of the hadeeth of the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).

                      It was narrated by Muslim in the introduction to his Saheeh (5), and by Abu Dawood (4992) that the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “It is sufficient lying for a man to speak of everything that he hears.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh Abi Dawood.

                      Al-Nawawi said:

                      Because usually he hears both true and false things, and if he were to speak of everything that he hears, he would be lying because he would be telling of something that did not happen. End quote.

                      Secondly:

                      It is permissible for a menstruating woman to remember Allaah by reciting whatever du’aa’s and dhikrs she wants; there is no reason why she should not do that. And it is permissible for her to recite Qur’aan, as is the view of Abu Haneefah and the view favoured by Shaykh al-Islam (may Allaah have mercy on them both).

                      Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah said in Majmoo’ al-Fataawa, 26/190:

                      There is no basis for saying that she (a menstruating woman) is not allowed to recite Qur’aan. The quotation, “The menstruating woman and the one who is junub should not recite Qur’aan” is a weak hadeeth, according to the consensus of the scholars who have knowledge of hadeeth.

                      Women used to menstruate at the time of the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), and if reciting was haraam, as prayer is, this would have been something to which the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) drew the attention of his ummah, and the Mother of the Believers would have known it, and that would have been something that was transmitted to the people. Since no one narrated any such prohibition from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), it is not permissible to make it haraam when it is known that he did not forbid it. Since he did not forbid it even though there were plenty of menstruating women around at his time, then it is known that it is not haraam. End quote.

                      But she should recite Qur’aan without touching the Mus-haf, either by reciting what she knows by heart, or reading from the Mus-haf whilst wearing gloves or something similar that will prevent her from touching the Mus-haf directly.

                      See also question no. 6564

                      And Allaah knows best.


                      Islam Q&A (www.islam-qa.com)

                      http://63.175.194.25/index.php?searc...et=0&msubmit=1
                      The preceding question was asked on behalf of a friend. Never believed in it myself.

                      Comment


                        #12
                        Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

                        Ruling on taking pictures

                        Assalamo alaykum, My sister and I often take pictures for memory to keep. However, we don't put them up on the walls or anything, but they are saved on your computers. Sometimes we share those pictures with family and friends while observing hijab. Is there anything wrong with it? Please explain. Jazakumullahu khairan. Sadiyah







                        Answered by:

                        Sheikh `Abd al-Wahhâb al-Turayrî

                        Former Professor at Imam University



                        The ruling regarding image making needs to be addressed in detail:



                        Drawing pictures by hand of people and animals is unlawful, by clear and unambiguous textual evidence. Ibn `Abbâs relates from the Prophet (peace be upon him): “Whoever makes an image in this world, he will be requested to breathe life into it on the Day of Resurrection, but he will not be able to do it.” [Sahîh al-Bukhârî and Sahîh Mulsim]



                        Ibn Mas`űd also relates that he heard the Prophet (peace be upon him) say: “The severest penalty on the Day of Resurrection will be given to image makers” [Sahîh al-Bukhârî and Sahîh Mulsim]



                        1. Making statues of animals and people is the most unlawful aspect of image making, and it deserves the severest punishment from Allah.



                        2. Images used by children for playing and for learning are lawful. `Â’ishah said: “I used to play with dolls in front of the Prophet (Peace be upon him) with my friends …” [Sahîh al-Bukhârî (6130) and Sahîh Muslim (2440)] as these are a means for education and are free from the danger of being venerated.



                        3. Photography does not come under forbidden image making, since there are many differences between the two. Photography is lawful because it is an act of capturing a reflection like the reflection of image off mirror. Most importantly, the problem of human emulation of the creative process is missing in photography.



                        As for possession and use of items already containing images which are used in a manner that implies no respect, this is something lawful, such as the images found on books, on carpets, pillows, and food containers. However, if the image is used for purposes indicating respect, such as hanging pictures of people and animals on the wall, then it is unlawful.



                        And Allah knows best.

                        Comment


                          #13
                          Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

                          The ruling on eating meat that is not killed by zabiha slaughter in interesting. Whilst the same view is aslo expressed by the scholar I generally follow, I still think that the other side presents a stronger case, that only zabiha meat is permissible.

                          The ruling given on renin is interesting too... I'll need to think this one over for a while.
                          Muslims are so good at dividing that they can divide the atom. If you see two Muslims, probably they belong to 3 parties.
                          Al-Ghazali

                          Comment


                            #14
                            Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

                            mad_scientist, I find this ruling the most strongest for myself at least. I've research over this topic for over a year. I learned about it about a year ago I believe, but I didn't start consuming the meat until a few months ago.

                            I checked with many scholars that I deem are reliable as well as many other Muslims.

                            Anyway, there's no hard and fast rule. One is free to follow what one deems to be correct and most accurate.

                            Comment


                              #15
                              Re: Some of the answers to the questions that I've asked...

                              I can very easily see myself dropping my objection to cheese with animal renin now, I have to say that this scholar argued a clearer, more focused case than the opposite side.

                              But on the issue of meat I would still feel horribly horribly wrong grabbing a can of corned beef off the shelf at Loblaws or something. But on the other hand, given that a lot of people who know more about Islam than I ever will argue that the meat is allowed, 2 years ago I stopped criticising or trying to correct Muslims who don't stick to zabihah meat. God forbid that I tell them it is not halal when it actually might be.....
                              Muslims are so good at dividing that they can divide the atom. If you see two Muslims, probably they belong to 3 parties.
                              Al-Ghazali

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